True. But, how much time was available to alert the correct persons? Second, once alerted, what if any, are the early warning systems present in affected countries that could have been used to warn the populace?
Perhaps more might have been possible. The question I have is, is the international tsunami warning system set up in such a way as for that to have happened? Because, the article does not make that at all clear. Second, assuming that was possible, as the article seems to (with, again, an unclear narrative as to why), the tone of article seems to presuppose malice in this case instead of incompetence with no justification made.